### **Specialty: Cardiology**
**Question 116:**
A 27-year-old male is admitted with chest pain radiating to the left arm and neck. He has a history of diabetes and is a heavy smoker. There are concerns for venous thromboembolism (VTE). What is the most appropriate initial management?
**Options:**
A) Aspirin
B) Encourage ambulation
C) Mechanical prophylaxis with compression stockings
D) Unfractionated heparin
E) Low-dose aspirin and clopidogrel
**Correct Answer:** D) Unfractionated heparin
**Explanation:** **Unfractionated heparin** is the first-line treatment for suspected **venous thromboembolism (VTE)**, especially in an acute setting where there is a high risk of clot formation. It works quickly to inhibit clot formation and is the standard initial management for VTE.
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when CTPA is contraindicated.
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